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NEW QUESTION # 27
What is the purpose of assigning an IP address to the management VLAN interface on a Layer 2 switch?
- A. To enable the switch to provide DHCP services to other switches in the network
- B. To enable access to the CLI on the switch through Telnet or SSH
- C. To enable the switch to resolve URLs for the attached the devices
- D. To enable the switch to act as a default gateway for the attached devices
Answer: B
Explanation:
The primary purpose of assigning an IP address to the management VLAN interface on a Layer 2 switch is to facilitate remote management of the switch. By configuring an IP address on the management VLAN, network administrators can access the switch's Command Line Interface (CLI) remotely using protocols such as Telnet or Secure Shell (SSH). This allows for convenient configuration changes, monitoring, and troubleshooting without needing physical access to the switch1.
References :=
*Understanding the Management VLAN
*Cisco - VLAN Configuration Guide
*Remote Management of Switches
Assigning an IP address to the management VLAN interface (often the VLAN 1 interface by default) on a Layer 2 switch allows network administrators to remotely manage the switch using protocols such as Telnet or SSH. This IP address does not affect the switch's ability to route traffic between VLANs but provides a means to access and configure the switch through its Command Line Interface (CLI).
*A: The switch does not act as a default gateway; this is typically a function of a Layer 3 device like a router.
*B: The switch does not resolve URLs; this is typically a function of DNS servers.
*C: The switch can relay DHCP requests but does not typically provide DHCP services itself; this is usually done by a dedicated DHCP server or router.
Thus, the correct answer is D. To enable access to the CLI on the switch through Telnet or SSH.
References :=
*Cisco VLAN Management Overview
*Cisco Catalyst Switch Management
NEW QUESTION # 28
A Cisco PoE switch is shown in the following image.
Which type of port will provide both data connectivity and power to an IP phone?
- A. Ports identified with numbers 3 and 4
- B. Port identified with number 2
- C. Ports identified with number 7
- D. Ports identified with number 6
Answer: D
Explanation:
In the provided image of the Cisco PoE switch, the ports identified with number 6 are the standard RJ-45 Ethernet ports typically found on switches that provide both data connectivity and Power over Ethernet (PoE). PoE ports are designed to supply power to devices such as IP phones, wireless access points, and other PoE-enabled devices directly through the Ethernet cable.
Ports:
* 2: Console port (for management and configuration)
* 3 and 4: Specific function ports (often for management)
* 6: RJ-45 Ethernet ports (capable of providing PoE)
* 7: SFP ports (for fiber connections, typically do not provide PoE) Thus, the correct answer is C. Ports identified with number 6.
Reference: =
* Cisco Catalyst 2960-L Series Switches Data Sheet
* Cisco PoE Overview
NEW QUESTION # 29
Which two statements are true about the IPv4 address of the default gateway configured on a host? (Choose 2.) Note: You will receive partial credit for each correct selection.
- A. The default gateway is the Loopback0 interface IPv4 address of the router connected to the same local network as the host.
- B. The default gateway is the IPv4 address of the router interface connected to the same local network as the host.
- C. The same default gateway IPv4 address is configured on each host on the local network.
- D. The IPv4 address of the default gateway must be the first host address in the subnet.
- E. Hosts learn the default gateway IPv4 address through router advertisement messages.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
*Statement B: "The same default gateway IPv4 address is configured on each host on the local network." This is true because all hosts on the same local network (subnet) use the same default gateway IP address to send packets destined for other networks.
*Statement D: "The default gateway is the IPv4 address of the router interface connected to the same local network as the host." This is true because the default gateway is the IP address of the router's interface that is directly connected to the local network.
*Statement A: "The IPv4 address of the default gateway must be the first host address in the subnet." This is not necessarily true. The default gateway can be any address within the subnet range.
*Statement C: "The default gateway is the Loopback0 interface IPv4 address of the router connected to the same local network as the host." This is not true; the default gateway is the IP address of the router's physical or logical interface connected to the local network.
*Statement E: "Hosts learn the default gateway IPv4 address through router advertisement messages." This is generally true for IPv6 with Router Advertisement (RA) messages, but not typically how IPv4 hosts learn the default gateway address.
References:
*Cisco Default Gateway Configuration: Cisco Default Gateway
NEW QUESTION # 30
A user initiates a trouble ticket stating that an external web page is not loading. You determine that other resources both internal and external are still reachable.
Which command can you use to help locate where the issue is in the network path to the external web page?
- A. tracert
- B. nslookup
- C. ping -t
- D. ipconfig/all
Answer: A
Explanation:
The tracert command is used to determine the route taken by packets across an IP network. When a user reports that an external web page is not loading, while other resources are accessible, it suggests there might be an issue at a certain point in the network path to the specific web page. The tracert command helps to diagnose where the breakdown occurs by displaying a list of routers that the packets pass through on their way to the destination. It can identify the network segment where the packets stop progressing, which is valuable for pinpointing where the connectivity issue lies. References := Cisco CCST Networking Certification FAQs - CISCONET Training Solutions, Command Prompt (CMD): 10 network-related commands you should know, Network Troubleshooting Commands Guide: Windows, Mac & Linux - Comparitech, How to Use the Traceroute and Ping Commands to Troubleshoot Network, Network Troubleshooting Techniques: Ping, Traceroute, PathPing.
*tracert Command: This command is used to determine the path packets take to reach a destination. It lists all the hops (routers) along the way and can help identify where the delay or failure occurs.
*ping -t: This command sends continuous ping requests and is useful for determining if a host is reachable but does not provide path information.
*ipconfig /all: This command displays all current TCP/IP network configuration values and can be used to verify network settings but not to trace a network path.
*nslookup: This command queries the DNS to obtain domain name or IP address mapping, useful for DNS issues but not for tracing network paths.
References:
*Microsoft tracert Command: tracert Command Guide
*Troubleshooting Network Issues with tracert: Network Troubleshooting Guide
NEW QUESTION # 31
You plan to use a network firewall to protect computers at a small office.
For each statement about firewalls, select True or False.
Note: You will receive partial credit for each correct selection.
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation:
* A firewall can direct all web traffic to a specific IP address.
* True: Firewalls can be configured to perform Network Address Translation (NAT) and port forwarding, which can direct all web traffic (typically on port 80 and 443) to a specific internal IP address.
* A firewall can block traffic to specific ports on internal computers.
* True: Firewalls can be configured with access control lists (ACLs) or rules to block traffic to specific ports on internal computers, enhancing security by restricting unwanted or harmful traffic.
* A firewall can prevent specific apps from running on a computer.
* False: Firewalls typically control traffic flow and do not prevent specific applications from running on a computer. Application control is usually managed by endpoint security software or application control systems.
* Directing Web Traffic: Firewalls can manage traffic redirection using NAT and port forwarding rules to route web traffic to designated servers or devices within the network.
* Blocking Specific Ports: Firewalls can enforce security policies by blocking or allowing traffic based on port numbers, ensuring that only permitted traffic reaches internal systems.
* Application Control: While firewalls manage network traffic, preventing applications from running typically requires software specifically designed for endpoint protection and application management.
References:
* Understanding Firewalls: Firewall Capabilities
* Network Security Best Practices: Network Security Guide
NEW QUESTION # 32
How does low bandwidth affect network performance?
- A. Decreases latency
- B. Increases throughput
- C. Increases latency
- D. Has no effect on latency
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 33
Which command will display the following output?
- A. show ip interface
- B. show mac-address-table
- C. show inventory
- D. show cdp neighbor
Answer: D
Explanation:
The command that will display the output provided, which includes capability codes, local interface details, device IDs, hold times, and platform port ID capabilities, is the show cdp neighbor command. This command is used in Cisco devices to display current information about neighboring devices detected by Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP), which includes details such as the interface through which the neighbor is connected, the type of device, and the port ID of the device1.
References :=
*Cisco - show cdp neighbors
The provided output is from the Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) neighbor table. The show cdp neighbor command displays information about directly connected Cisco devices, including Device ID, Local Interface, Holdtime, Capability, Platform, and Port ID.
*A. show mac-address-table: Displays the MAC address table on the switch.
*C. show inventory: Displays information about the hardware inventory of the device.
*D. show ip interface: Displays IP interface status and configuration.
Thus, the correct answer is B. show cdp neighbor.
References :=
*Cisco CDP Neighbor Command
*Understanding CDP
NEW QUESTION # 34
A support technician examines the front panel of a Cisco switch and sees 4 Ethernet cables connected in the first four ports. Ports 1, 2, and 3 have a green LED. Port 4 has a blinking green light.
What is the state of the Port 4?
- A. Link is up and not stable.
- B. Link is up with cable malfunctions.
- C. Link is up and active.
- D. Link is up and there is no activity.
Answer: C
Explanation:
On a Cisco switch, a port with a blinking green LED typically indicates that the port is up (active) and is currently transmitting or receiving data. This is a normal state indicating active traffic on the port.
*A. Link is up with cable malfunctions: Usually indicated by an amber or blinking amber light.
*B. Link is up and not stable: Not typically indicated by a green blinking light.
*D. Link is up and there is no activity: Would be indicated by a solid green light without blinking.
Thus, the correct answer is C. Link is up and active.
References :=
*Cisco Switch LED Indicators
*Cisco Ethernet Switch LED Patterns
NEW QUESTION # 35
A host is given the IP address 172.16.100.25 and the subnet mask 255.255.252.0.
What is the CIDR notation for this address?
- A. 172.16.100.25 /20
- B. 172.16.100.25 /21
- C. 172.16.100.25 /23
- D. 172.16.100.25 /22
Answer: D
Explanation:
The CIDR (Classless Inter-Domain Routing) notation for the subnet mask 255.255.252.0 is /22. This notation indicates that the first 22 bits of the IP address are used for network identification, and the remaining bits are used for host addresses within the network1.
Reference: =
* Subnet Cheat Sheet - 24 Subnet Mask, 30, 26, 27, 29, and other IP Address CIDR Network Reference
* Subnet Mask to CIDR Notation: The given subnet mask is 255.255.252.0.
To convert this to CIDR notation:
* Convert the subnet mask to binary: 11111111.11111111.11111100.00000000
* Count the number of consecutive 1s in the binary form: There are 22 ones.
* Therefore, the CIDR notation is /22.
Reference: * Understanding Subnetting and CIDR: Cisco CIDR Guide
NEW QUESTION # 36
In the network shown in the following graphic, Switch1 is a Layer 2 switch.
PC-A sends a frame to PC-C. Switch1 does not have a mapping entry for the MAC address of PC-C.
Which action does Switch1 take?
- A. Switch1 floods the frame out all active ports except port G0/1.
- B. Switch1 drops the frame and sends an error message back to PC-
- C. Switch1 queries Switch2 for the MAC address of PC-C.
- D. Switch1 sends an ARP request to obtain the MAC address of PC-
Answer: B
Explanation:
In a network, when a Layer 2 switch (like Switch1) receives a frame destined for a MAC address that is not in its MAC address table, it performs a flooding operation. This means the switch will send the frame out of all ports except the port on which the frame was received. This flooding ensures that if the destination device is connected to one of the other ports, it will receive the frame and respond, allowing the switch to learn its MAC address.
A). Switch1 queries Switch2 for the MAC address of PC-C: This does not happen in Layer 2 switches; they do not query other switches for MAC addresses.
A). Switch1 drops the frame and sends an error message back to PC-A: This is not the default behavior for unknown unicast frames.
D). Switch1 sends an ARP request to obtain the MAC address of PC-C: ARP is used by devices to map IP addresses to MAC addresses, not by switches to find unknown MAC addresses.
Thus, the correct answer is
B). Switch1 floods the frame out all active ports except port G0/1.
Reference: =
Cisco Layer 2 Switching Overview
Switching Mechanisms (Cisco)
NEW QUESTION # 37
A Cisco switch is not accessible from the network. You need to view its running configuration.
Which out-of-band method can you use to access it?
- A. SNMP
- B. SSH
- C. Telnet
- D. Console
Answer: D
Explanation:
Out-of-band management
When a Cisco switch is not accessible from the network, the recommended out-of-band method to access its running configuration is through the console port. Out-of-band management involves accessing the network device through a dedicated management channel that is not part of the data network. The console port provides direct access to the switch's Command Line Interface (CLI) without using the network, which is essential when the switch cannot be accessed remotely via the network12.
References :=
* Out-of-band (OOB) network interface configuration guidelines
* Out of band management configuration
NEW QUESTION # 38
An app on a user's computer is having problems downloading data. The app uses the following URL to download data:
https://www.companypro.net:7100/api
You need to use Wireshark to capture packets sent to and received from that URL.
Which Wireshark filter options would you use to filter the results? Complete the command by selecting the correct option from each drop-down list.
Note: You will receive partial credit for each correct selection.
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation:
To capture packets sent to and received from the URL https://www.companypro.net:7100/api using Wireshark, you would use the following filter options:
* Protocol: tcp
* Filter Type: port
* Port Number: 7100
This filter setup in Wireshark will display all TCP packets that are sent to or received from port 7100, which is the port specified in the URL for the API service. Since HTTPS typically uses TCP as the transport layer protocol, filtering by TCP and the specific port number will help isolate the relevant packets for troubleshooting the app's data download issues.
* cp: The app is using HTTPS, which relies on the TCP protocol for communication.
* port: The specific port number used by the application, which in this case is 7100.
* 7100: This is the port specified in the URL (https://www.companypro.net:7100/api).
This filter will capture all TCP traffic on port 7100, allowing you to analyze the packets related to the application's data download.
References:
* Wireshark Filters: Wireshark Display Filters
NEW QUESTION # 39
DRAG DROP
Move the security options from the list on the left to its characteristic on the right. You may use each security option once, more than once, or not at all. Note: You will receive partial credit for each correct answer.
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation:
The correct matching of the security options to their characteristics is as follows:
WPA2-Enterprise: Uses a RADIUS server for authentication
WEP: Uses a minimum of 40 bits for encryption
WPA2-Personal: Uses AES and a pre-shared key for authentication
Here's why each security option matches the characteristic:
WPA2-Enterprise uses a RADIUS server for authentication, which provides centralized Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA) management for users who connect and use a network service.
WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy) is an outdated security protocol that uses a minimum of 40 bits for encryption (and up to 104 bits), which is relatively weak by today's standards.
WPA2-Personal (Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 - Personal) uses the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) for encryption and a pre-shared key (PSK) for authentication, which is shared among users to access the network.
These security options are essential for protecting wireless networks from unauthorized access and ensuring data privacy.
NEW QUESTION # 40
A help desk technician receives the four trouble tickets listed below.
Which ticket should receive the highest priority and be addressed first?
- A. Ticket 4: Two users report that wireless access in the cafeteria has been down for the last hour.
- B. Ticket 2: An online webinar is taking place in the conference room. The video conferencing equipment lost internet access.
- C. Ticket 3: A user reports that response time for a cloud-based application is slower than usual.
- D. Ticket 1: A user requests relocation of a printer to a different network jack in the same office. The jack must be patched and made active.
Answer: B
Explanation:
When prioritizing trouble tickets, the most critical issues affecting business operations or high-impact activities should be addressed first.
Here's a breakdown of the tickets:
Ticket 1: Relocation of a printer, while necessary, is not urgent and does not impact critical operations.
Ticket 2: An ongoing webinar losing internet access is critical, especially if the webinar is time-sensitive and involves multiple participants.
Ticket 3: Slower response time for a cloud-based application is important but typically not as urgent as a complete loss of internet access for a live event.
Ticket 4: Wireless access down in the cafeteria affects users but does not have the same immediate impact as a live webinar losing connectivity.
Thus, the correct answer is B. Ticket 2: An online webinar is taking place in the conference room. The video conferencing equipment lost internet access.
Reference: =
IT Help Desk Best Practices
Prioritizing IT Support Tickets
NEW QUESTION # 41
Which two pieces of information should you include when you initially create a support ticket? (Choose 2.)
- A. A detailed description of the fault
- B. The actions taken to resolve the fault
- C. The description of the top-down fault-finding procedure
- D. A description of the conditions when the fault occurs
- E. Details about the computers connected to the network
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Statement A: "A detailed description of the fault." This is essential for support staff to understand the nature of the problem and begin troubleshooting effectively.
Statement C: "A description of the conditions when the fault occurs." This helps in reproducing the issue and identifying patterns that might indicate the cause of the fault.
Statement B: "Details about the computers connected to the network." While useful, this is not as immediately critical as understanding the fault itself and the conditions under which it occurs.
Statement D: "The actions taken to resolve the fault." This is important but typically follows the initial report.
Statement E: "The description of the top-down fault-finding procedure." This is more of a troubleshooting methodology than information typically included in an initial support ticket.
Reference: Best Practices for Submitting Support Tickets: Support Ticket Guidelines
NEW QUESTION # 42
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