View All 300-540 Actual Free Exam Questions Mar 17, 2026 Updated [Q83-Q105]

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View All 300-540 Actual Free Exam Questions Mar 17, 2026 Updated

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NEW QUESTION # 83
Which of the following are true about IPsec VPNs? (Choose two)

  • A. It is suitable for creating secure connections over the public internet
  • B. It provides end-to-end encryption
  • C. It encrypts data at the application layer
  • D. It is used exclusively within private networks

Answer: A,B


NEW QUESTION # 84
Streaming telemetry with gRPC and gNMI is used for:

  • A. Real-time network monitoring
  • B. Physical network repairs
  • C. Data encryption
  • D. Reducing network traffic

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 85
What is used to protect against an API logic flaw?

  • A. Data encryption at rest
  • B. Data encryption in transit
  • C. SSH encryption at rest
  • D. Remediation of vulnerabilities

Answer: D

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation
AnAPI logic flawis a weakness in the API'sbusiness logic- not in encryption or transport security. It occurs when:
* API functions are misused
* Business rules are bypassed
* Security validation is missing
* Workflow logic is incorrect
These issues cannot be solved through encryption (at rest or in transit). They require:
#Vulnerability remediation
#Fixing API code logic
#Updating API validation, flow control, and authentication logic
Thus the correct answer isC. Remediation of vulnerabilities.


NEW QUESTION # 86
The use of pseudowires in DCI solutions is primarily to:

  • A. Simulate a wire-like connection over a packet-switched network
  • B. Create a physical connection between two points
  • C. Provide layer 3 connectivity over a layer 2 network
  • D. Reduce the overall security of the data being transmitted

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 87
Implementing multi-homing in a network design provides __________.

  • A. increased latency
  • B. redundancy
  • C. decreased security
  • D. decreased bandwidth

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 88
What is a valid connection method between carrier-neutral facilities within the same metro area?

  • A. CAT6e connection
  • B. private wireless connection
  • C. DWDM ring
  • D. OSPF backbone area adjacency

Answer: C

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation Based on Designing and Implementing Cisco Service Provider Cloud Network Infrastructure Knowledge When connectingcarrier-neutral facilities (CNFs)ordata centerswithin the same metropolitan area, service providers typically usehigh-bandwidth, low-latency optical transport methods. The most appropriate and commonly deployed interconnection technology is:
DWDM (Dense Wavelength Division Multiplexing) ring, which provides:
* High capacity (10G, 40G, 100G, 400G)
* Low latency
* Redundancy through ring or mesh topologies
* Multi-wavelength multiplexing for cost efficiency
* Carrier-grade reliability for metro interconnect services
This aligns with cloud interconnect and metro transport design used in service provider environments.
Evaluation of the Options
A). OSPF backbone area adjacency
This is a routing protocol adjacency, not a physical connection method. It requires a transport link underneath but does not represent the physical interconnect itself.
B). Private wireless connection
Not suitable for CNF or metro DC interconnect because it lacks the bandwidth, reliability, and deterministic performance required for large-scale carrier-grade interconnects.
C). DWDM ring
This is the correct method. DWDM-based metro fiber rings are the standard for connecting carrier-neutral facilities in the same metro region.
D). CAT6e connection
This is limited to short-distance copper Ethernet (tens of meters). It is not used for metro-scale interconnects or between CNFs.


NEW QUESTION # 89
To ensure control plane high availability, deploying __________ instances across different physical servers is recommended.

  • A. single
  • B. multiple
  • C. isolated
  • D. duplicated

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 90
Implementing __________ from NFVI to physical infrastructure optimizes routing efficiency and redundancy.

  • A. Direct connections
  • B. ECMP
  • C. Static routing
  • D. Single-path

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 91
Load balancers are recommended in high availability designs to distribute traffic across multiple
__________.

  • A. servers
  • B. countries
  • C. protocols
  • D. networks

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 92
An engineer attempts to kill a NETCONF session. The session ID is equal to the current session. What is the effect of this action?

  • A. The configuration is removed, and the current user is logged out.
  • B. The configuration is saved, and the current user is logged out.
  • C. An invalid-value error is returned, and the current user is not logged out.
  • D. The session is terminated, and all the connected users are logged out.

Answer: C

Explanation:
NETCONF rules state:
* A user cannot terminatetheir own active session.
* Attempting to kill the same session returnsinvalid-valueerror.
* The session continues running normally.
Thus:
* No logout
* No termination
* No configuration impact
Therefore,Ais correct.


NEW QUESTION # 93
What are the key benefits of automatic fault management in service assurance? (Select two)

  • A. Reduced need for real-time monitoring
  • B. Quick identification and mitigation of network issues
  • C. Increasing manual intervention
  • D. Enhanced network reliability and uptime

Answer: B,D


NEW QUESTION # 94
Direct connect and MPLS differ in that:

  • A. Direct connect offers private connectivity to cloud services, while MPLS provides a protocol for efficient network routing
  • B. Direct connect is a routing protocol
  • C. MPLS offers direct access to cloud providers
  • D. MPLS can only be used in public internet connections

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 95
Which command must be run on a Cisco IOS device to configure six parallel iBGP and eBGP routes that can be installed into a routing table?

  • A. maximum paths bgp routers 6
  • B. maximum paths bgp 6
  • C. multipath eibgp 6
  • D. maximum-paths eibgp 6

Answer: B

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Cisco SP Core Optimization Knowledge Cisco IOS supportsBGP Multipathfor installing multiple equal-cost BGP routes (both iBGP and eBGP) into the routing table. The correct global BGP command syntax to set the number of allowable parallel BGP paths is:
maximum-paths <number>
For BGP specifically, the form is:
maximum-paths bgp <number>
This enables the router to install up to the specified number of equal-cost BGP routes (iBGP and eBGP) into the RIB and then potentially into the FIB.
Setting:
maximum-paths bgp 6
allowssixparallel ECMP paths learned via BGP-this matches the requirement in the question.
Why the other options are incorrect
* B. multipath eibgp 6Not a valid Cisco IOS command.
* C. maximum paths bgp routers 6Invalid syntax.
* D. maximum-paths eibgp 6The correct keyword isbgp, noteibgp.Cisco does not use "eibgp" in this context; IOS supports BGP multipath across iBGP/eBGP automatically when configured under maximum-paths bgp.


NEW QUESTION # 96
MPLS is preferred over traditional routing because it:

  • A. Increases the complexity of the network
  • B. Can only be used for small-scale networks
  • C. Provides more reliable and efficient data packet delivery
  • D. Uses longer paths for data transmission

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 97
DNS security is essential for preventing:

  • A. Physical access breaches
  • B. Hardware failures
  • C. DNS poisoning and DDoS attacks
  • D. Power outages

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 98
Which format is used by Cisco Container Platform for configuration files?

  • A. XML
  • B. HTML
  • C. XHTML
  • D. YAML

Answer: D

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation
Cisco Container Platform (CCP), built on Kubernetes orchestration, usesYAMLfiles for:
* Cluster configuration
* Pod definitions
* Network settings
* Storage mappings
YAML is the industry-standard declarative syntax for Kubernetes and container orchestration platforms.
HTML, XHTML, and XML are not used for CCP configuration.


NEW QUESTION # 99
An engineer must design a high-availability solution that provides path redundancy for IP by allowing redundant gateways to share MAC protocols and addresses. A group of Layer 3 routers must be allowed to share the default gateway on a LAN, load balance, and seamlessly take over the traffic transfer role if a router in the group fails. What must be used?

  • A. Load balancer
  • B. GLBP
  • C. BFD
  • D. Routed network core

Answer: B

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation
In Cisco high-availability LAN gateway designs, the requirement is:
* Multiple L3 gateways sharing avirtual MAC and virtual IP
* Ability toload balanceacross multiple active gateways
* Capability toseamlessly take overgateway forwarding during a failure
Among Cisco First Hop Redundancy Protocols (FHRPs):
* HSRP# Active/standby only
* VRRP# Active/standby only
* GLBP (Gateway Load Balancing Protocol)#The only FHRP providing active/active load balancing GLBP allows multiple routers to share:
* Acommon virtual IP
* Multiplevirtual MAC addresses
* Multipleactive forwardersthat load-balance end hosts
* Automatic failover if any gateway fails
Thus, GLBP is the only correct protocol matching the requirement forredundant default gateways with load balancing and shared MAC addressing.


NEW QUESTION # 100
What should be used to protect against lateral movements during a Cisco NFVI security breach?

  • A. Network segmentation
  • B. Web application firewall
  • C. Data encryption
  • D. Wi-Fi Protected Access

Answer: A

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation
In Cisco NFVI security architecture, the primary defense againstlateral movement(an attacker moving from one compromised node to another) isnetwork segmentation.
Segmentation:
* Separates workloads (compute, storage, management, tenant networks)
* Prevents attackers from pivoting inside the NFVI
* Reduces blast radius during breaches
* Enforces micro-segmented virtual network boundaries
WPA protects Wi-Fi, not NFVI.
WAF protects web apps, not internal movement.
Data encryption protects confidentiality, not lateral movement control.
Thus,network segmentationis the correct solution.


NEW QUESTION # 101

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is troubleshooting a Cisco NFVI issue where the management node fails to start. Which service must be restarted to resolve the issue?

  • A. docker
  • B. docker-cobbler
  • C. kube-apiserver
  • D. docker-kibana

Answer: A

Explanation:
In Cisco NFVI, themanagement noderelies heavily on Docker containers for:
* NFVIS management functions
* VIM services
* Orchestration components
If the management node fails to start and the system shows:
docker.service: inactive (dead)
...then all Docker-based platform services also fail to start.
The correct recovery action is torestart the Docker engine:
systemctl restart docker
This brings up:
* All NFVI-required Docker containers
* Management services
* REST APIs and cluster components
Why other answers are incorrect:
* docker-kibana# Only affects Kibana logging container
* docker-cobbler# Used for provisioning, not core NFVI management
* kube-apiserver# Part of Kubernetes cluster, but relies on Docker; restarting it won't help until Docker is running Thus, the correct answer isB. docker.


NEW QUESTION # 102
The implementation of __________ in high availability designs helps to manage traffic flow and prevent overloads.

  • A. routing protocols
  • B. load balancers
  • C. DNS
  • D. firewalls

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 103
Virtualized Cisco platforms, like Cisco IOS XRv, offer which of the following benefits?

  • A. Decreased network flexibility
  • B. Higher energy consumption
  • C. Increased physical space requirements
  • D. Reduced need for physical hardware

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 104
Which of the following techniques is used for DoS mitigation?

  • A. Blackhole routing
  • B. Decreasing redundancy
  • C. Disabling security protocols
  • D. Reducing network segmentation

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 105
......


Cisco 300-540 Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Service Assurance and Optimization: This section of the exam measures the skills of Cloud Operations Engineers and covers assurance mechanisms used to maintain performance, stability, and visibility across NFVI environments. It includes network assurance concepts such as MANO frameworks, VNF workload monitoring, VIM control plane KPIs, and streaming telemetry with gRPC and gNMI. Candidates must understand cloud infrastructure performance monitoring tools, including SR-PM, NetFlow, IPFIX, syslog, SNMP traps, RMON, cloud agents, and automated fault management systems. The domain also touches on diagnosing NFVI-related errors and optimizing VNFs using techniques such as SR-IOV and software-accelerated virtual switching technologies like DPDK and VPP.
Topic 2
  • Security: This section of the exam measures the skills of Network Security Engineers and covers the implementation of infrastructure-level protection in cloud and NFVI ecosystems. It includes topics such as ACLs, uRPF, RTBH, router hardening, BGP flowspec, TACACS, and MACSEC. Candidates should understand DoS mitigation methods and apply security practices within NFVI, focusing on API protection, securing the control and management plane, and segmentation strategies in service provider cloud environments. The domain also evaluates basic knowledge of TLS, mTLS, and general cloud security solutions related to DNS protection, zero-day defenses, and malware detection.
Topic 3
  • Virtualized Architecture: This section of the exam measures the skills of Cloud Network Engineers and covers the foundational concepts of virtualized infrastructures used in modern service provider and cloud environments. Candidates are expected to understand constraints in IaaS designs, determine appropriate cloud service models, and demonstrate awareness of container orchestration compared to traditional virtual machines. The exam also evaluates the ability to implement key virtualization functions such as NFV, VNF, NSO, and virtualized Cisco platforms. Learners must be able to deploy NFV with automation tools, manage VNF onboarding, work with NSO-driven orchestration, and use protocols like NETCONF, RESTCONF, REST APIs, and gNMI within automated cloud ecosystems. A general understanding of supporting platforms such as OpenStack also forms part of the required knowledge in this domain.
Topic 4
  • High Availability: This section of the exam measures the skills of Cloud Infrastructure Architects and covers the design and implementation of redundancy and resiliency mechanisms in virtualized network functions and distributed cloud platforms. It includes data plane redundancy for VNFs, high availability within a single VIM control plane, and resilient compute, vNIC, and top-of-rack switching. The exam requires an understanding of multi-homing, EVLAG configurations, virtual private cloud deployment, and ECMP strategies for NFVI integrations with physical routing protocols such as BGP, OSPF, and IS-IS. Candidates must also recommend suitable high-availability models involving DNS, routing, and load balancing.
Topic 5
  • Cloud Interconnect: This section of the exam measures the skills of Service Provider Network Engineers and covers how large networks interconnect with cloud platforms and carrier-neutral facilities. Candidates are expected to understand various connectivity options to cloud providers, customer sites, and other neutral facilities, as well as evaluate WAN connectivity models such as direct connect, MPLS or segment routing, and IPsec VPN links. The domain also includes the ability to troubleshoot advanced data center interconnect solutions, including EVPN VXLAN, EVPN over SR
  • MPLS, ACI-based connectivity, and pseudowire architectures supporting cloud-to-cloud and cloud-to-edge communication.

 

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