2023 Easy Success AACN PCCN Exam in First Try
Best PCCN Exam Dumps for the Preparation of Latest Exam Questions
NEW QUESTION # 259
A known diabetic is taking anti-diabetic medications regularly. What is the best lab investigation that can tell us about the long-term good blood glucose control?
- A. Ketone bodies in urine
- B. HbA1c
- C. Random blood glucose levels
- D. Fasting blood glucose levels
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation: The best lab investigation which can tell us about 2 to 3 month glucose control is HBA1c (hemoglobin A1c). As hemoglobin holds sugar for longer duration, so it can tell us about long-term control of diabetes.
NEW QUESTION # 260
Of the following, which insulin would be expected to peak the most quickly:
- A. Glulisine
- B. Aspart
- C. NPH
- D. Regular
Answer: A
Explanation:
Correct: Glulisine
Glulisine (Aprida) is a rapid-acting insulin and peaks in 0.5 to 1.5 hours.
Aspart (Novolog) peaks in 1 to 2 hours. NPH (Humulin N) is an intermediate-acting insulin and takes at least 4 hours to peak. Regular insulin takes at least 2 hours to peak.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 392.
NEW QUESTION # 261
The Braden scale is a validated risk assessment scale for evaluating a patient's risk for:
- A. Pressure injury development
- B. Stroke
- C. Falls
- D. Self-harm
Answer: A
Explanation:
Correct answer: Pressure injury development
Both the Braden and the Norton scale are validated risk assessment scales for assessing patient risk for the development of pressure injuries. The Braden scale takes into account the following six subcategories:
* Sensory perception
* Moisture
* Activity
* Mobility
* Nutrition
* Friction/shear
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 291.
NEW QUESTION # 262
If a patient is anemic, then what do you expect in the cardiovascular examination of the patient?
- A. Gallop rhythm
- B. Third heart sound
- C. All of above
- D. Murmurs
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation: In cardiovascular examination of the anemic patient, murmurs will be there because the viscosity of blood is decreased in anemia, which results in decreased peripheral resistance. So, more blood is pumped into the heart, and this increased flow can cause turbulence that result in heart murmurs.
NEW QUESTION # 263
Oliguria is defined as:
- A. Urine output of less than 50 mL per day
- B. Urine output of less than 200 mL per day
- C. Urine output of less than 600 mL per day
- D. Urine output of less than 400 mL per day
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: Urine output of less than 400 mL per day
Oliguria is urine output of less than 400 mL/day (24 hours). Oliguria is sometimes referred to as hypouresis (both are names from roots meaning "not enough urine"). Oliguria is clinically classified as an output of more than 100 mL/day but less than 400mL/day.
Anuria is urine output of less than 50 mL/day. It means the nonpassage of urine and would often be an indication of kidney failure.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 373.
NEW QUESTION # 264
When working face-to-face with suicidal clients, the nurse utilizes the following general guidelines except:
- A. Ask about previous suicide attempts
- B. Directly asking the clients when they are planning to carry out the suicide
- C. Ask the clients how they intend to do the suicide
- D. Determine whether or not the clients' suicidal ideations are serious or not
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation: The nurse has to consider all suicidal threats seriously. Directly asking about the clients' suicidal intentions will not drive them to suicide. The other options are appropriate interventions when dealing with suicidal clients.
NEW QUESTION # 265
Serum glucose is manufactured in the body by:
- A. Pancreas
- B. Kidneys
- C. Spleen
- D. Liver
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation: Serum glucose is manufactured in the body by the liver from carbohydrates used in food and is stored as glycogen in the liver cells. If carbohydrates intake is decreased, glucose can be produced from muscle and fat tissue which leads to increased muscle wasting.
NEW QUESTION # 266
Which of the following terms refers to a type of pleural effusion in which lymph collects in the pleural cavity?
- A. Chylothorax
- B. Cholethorax
- C. Pleurodesis
- D. Pyothorax
Answer: A
Explanation:
Correct answer: Chylothorax
In chylothorax, lymph accumulates in the pleural cavity.
Cholethorax describes the presence of bile in the pleural cavity. Pyothorax is the presence of pus in the pleural cavity. Pleurodesis is a procedure in which anesthetics or sclerosing agents are instilled into the pleural space.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 251.
NEW QUESTION # 267
Interventions to help prevent disagreement between staff and family perspectives about the type or priorities of family needs include all of the following except:
- A. Providing information according to family needs
- B. Establishing methods to contact and communicate with the patient's family
- C. Identification of a family spokesman or contact person
- D. Relying on nurses to fulfill all family needs
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: Relying on nurses to fulfill all family needs
Families need support in maintaining their strength and having needs met to be able to function as a positive influence for the patient rather than having a negative impact. However, relying on nurses to fulfill all family needs while caring for patients creates tension and frustration. Hospital resources must also be utilized and the family can also be assessed for resources they have which can be maximized.
Interventions to help prevent disagreement between staff and family perspectives about the type or priorities of family needs include: Establishing methods to contact and communicate with the patient's family, identification of a family spokesman or contact person, and providing information according to family needs.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 29.
NEW QUESTION # 268
In renal replacement therapy, the process by which substrates move from an area of high concentration to one of a lesser concentration is known as:
- A. Convection
- B. Osmosis
- C. Filtration
- D. Diffusion
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: Diffusion
In renal replacement therapy, the process by which substrates move from an area of high concentration to one of a lesser concentration is known as diffusion. Diffusion is used for removing small waste molecules (also known as solutes) during hemodialysis. In renal replacement therapy, blood flows through the hollow fibers of the dialyzer, and a cleansing fluid (dialysate solution), flows in the opposite direction (See Image). This configuration maximizes the removal of wastes. Throughout this process, the waste molecules move from a higher concentration in the blood to a lower concentration in the dialysate.
Through osmosis, water from an area of lesser solute concentration moves to an area of greater solute concentrate, becoming a part of the filtrate. Convection involves the movement of fluids and solutes being pushed through a membrane by pressure and creating a drag, which pulls larger particles along with the fluid. Filtration is the process that occurs which allows for movement of water and solute as a result of a difference in hydrostatic pressure.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 382.
NEW QUESTION # 269
Which of the following is the most widely-used opioid and is the gold standard against which other opioids are compared?
- A. Hydromorphone
- B. Dilaudid
- C. Fentanyl
- D. Morphine sulfate
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: Morphine sulfate
Morphine is the most widely-used opioid; it is the gold standard against which other opioids are compared. Other opioids commonly used in the care of the acutely ill include hydromorphone (Dilaudid) and fentanyl (Sublimaze).
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 147.
NEW QUESTION # 270
Distributive shock is also known as:
- A. Relative hypovolemic shock
- B. Hypovolemic shock
- C. Cardiogenic shock
- D. Vascular shock
Answer: A
Explanation:
Correct answer: Relative hypovolemic shock
In distributive shock, the total volume of blood and the pumping function of the heart are normal, but the blood is not appropriately distributed throughout the vascular bed. For various reasons, including sepsis and anaphylaxis, massive vasodilation occurs, increasing the size of the vascular bed. In this enlarged bed, the normal volume of circulating blood can no longer fill the vascular space, causing a drop in blood pressure and inadequate tissue perfusion.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 236.
NEW QUESTION # 271
A known diabetic was maintaining full control of his sugar, when suddenly he gets an infection. How is this infection going to affect his diabetic control?
- A. Infection will have no affect on underlying diabetes
- B. Glucose levels will lower in the blood
- C. None of the above
- D. Glucose levels will be raised in the blood
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation: An infection will increase his blood sugar levels even though he has full control of his sugar.
This is a response of the body to any type of stress where the sugar level of the blood is increased.
Infection is also a physiological stressful condition. Stress related hyperglycemia is also common after stroke and myocardial infarction.
NEW QUESTION # 272
A patient is tested for aphasia with the following results:
* Naming: Unable
* Fluency: Intact
* Comprehension: Unable
* Repetition: Unable
Which type of aphasia does this patient most likely have?
- A. Wernicke's
- B. Broca's
- C. Transcortical sensory
- D. Transcortical motor
Answer: A
Explanation:
Correct answer: Wernicke's
Testing for aphasia includes four elements: naming, fluency, comprehension, and repetition. Broca's aphasia is categorized as a motor aphasia, in which comprehension is intact but fluency of speech, naming, and repetition are impaired.
The comprehension of patients affected by Broca's aphasia or transcortical motor aphasia (types of motor aphasia) is most often intact. Transcortical sensory aphasia is similar to Wernicke's aphasia, but repetition is intact.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 299.
NEW QUESTION # 273
Which of the following terms refers to the use of one's own skills and knowledge to promote the interests of another?
- A. Paternalism
- B. Advocacy
- C. Nonmaleficence
- D. Fidelity
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct answer: Advocacy
Patient advocacy is an essential role of the nurse. The nurse is able to understand the impact of disease and interpret health care information in a unique way, then acts as a patient advocate by applying this understanding to ensure the patient's values and beliefs guide the plan of care.
Paternalism refers to circumstances in which the principle of doing good (beneficence) overrides that of autonomy. Nonmaleficence is the principle that imposes the duty to do no harm. Fidelity describes the obligation to be faithful to promises and commitments.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 198.
NEW QUESTION # 274
All of the following drugs are used for the treatment of asthma except:
- A. Antibiotics
- B. Anti-cholinergic drugs
- C. Corticosteroids
- D. Beta adreneregic agonists
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation: All of the following drugs are used for the treatment of asthma except antibiotics. Severe acute attack of asthma does not respond to conventional therapy. Different pharmacological agents are in practice to control the symptoms of asthma, some that are long acting to prevent attacks and others that are short acting. Antibiotics have no role in treating Asthma because there is no infective cause in Asthma.
NEW QUESTION # 275
All of the following statements related to the compensatory stage of shock are true except:
- A. During the compensatory stage of shock, patients become restless and agitated due to respiratory alkalosis
- B. During the compensatory stage of shock, angiotensin I, present in the blood, is converted to angiotensin II in the lungs
- C. During the compensatory stage of shock, hypovolemia and resultant hypotension lead to activation of the parasympathetic nervous system
- D. During the compensatory stage of shock, renal blood flow is reduced which activates hormonal response
Answer: C
Explanation:
Correct answer: During the compensatory stage of shock, hypovolemia and resultant hypotension lead to activation of the parasympathetic nervous system.
During the compensatory stage of shock, hypovolemia and resultant hypotension lead to activation of the sympathetic nervous system (not the parasympathetic nervous system). The sympathetic nervous system initiates neural, hormonal and chemical compensatory mechanisms causing peripheral vasoconstriction and elevation of the blood pressure.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 236-237.
NEW QUESTION # 276
The most common cause of tracheal deviation seen on chest x-ray is:
- A. Atelectasis
- B. Pneumothorax
- C. Pleural effusion
- D. Emphysema
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct answer: Pneumothorax
On chest x-ray, the trachea should appear midline, with the carina seen at the level of the aortic knob or second intercostal space. Pneumothorax, which is the most common cause of tracheal deviation, causes a mediastinal and tracheal shift to the area away from the pneumothorax.
Pleural effusion and atelectasis can also cause tracheal deviation from midline; however, pneumothorax is the most common cause. Emphysema does not typically cause tracheal deviation. More common chest x-ray findings in emphysema include hyperinflated lungs, flattened diaphragm, and widened intercostal spaces.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 247-248.
NEW QUESTION # 277
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