Authentic Best resources for NCE-ABE Test Engine Practice Exam
[2025] NCE-ABE PDF Questions - Perfect Prospect To Go With Fast2test Practice Exam
NEW QUESTION # 69
Which is an example of a nonjudgmental stance?
- A. "We first need to address your sexual orientation."
- B. "You speak English so well to be from another country."
- C. "Tell me more about your experience from that day."
- D. "I do not think that you should stay with your partner."
Answer: C
Explanation:
In the Counseling and Helping Relationships core area, CACREP emphasizes the importance of:
* A nonjudgmental, empathetic stance,
* Respect for client autonomy,
* Use of open-ended, client-centered questions.
Option A is an open invitation for the client to share more, without evaluation, criticism, or assumptions. It:
* Centers the client's experience,
* Avoids imposing values,
* Demonstrates respect and curiosity, not judgment.
By contrast:
* B is a microaggressive statement implying surprise at competence due to nationality.
* C imposes the counselor's values and directs the client's personal decision.
* D suggests that sexual orientation is a "problem" to be "addressed," which is pathologizing and judgmental.
Therefore, A is the example that aligns with a nonjudgmental counseling stance.
NEW QUESTION # 70
Which exemplifies an informal observation made by a counselor?
- A. Noticing each time a client stutters during family visitation.
- B. Asking the client to keep a tally of nonverbal tics.
- C. Offering to shake the client's hand at the start of a session.
- D. Determining if a client can act out written instructions as part of an intake.
Answer: A
Explanation:
In counseling assessment, informal observation refers to the counselor naturally noticing client behaviors in real situations without using a standardized procedure, rating scale, or structured task.
* D is the best example: the counselor notices each time a client stutters during family visitation. This is a naturalistic, unstructured observation made during a typical interaction.
Why the others are not informal observations by the counselor:
* A. Determining if a client can act out written instructions involves setting up a deliberate, structured task, closer to a formal or planned observational assessment.
* B. Offering a handshake is a counselor behavior, not an observation. While the counselor could observe the client's response, the option itself does not describe an observation.
* C. Asking the client to keep a tally of nonverbal tics is self-monitoring, where the client-not the counselor-is doing the observing and recording.
The NBCC Counselor Work Behavior Areas emphasize that counselors must be skilled in both formal and informal observational methods as part of Intake, Assessment and Diagnosis, using what they notice in session to inform conceptualization and treatment.
NEW QUESTION # 71
In family counseling, when a counselor attempts to help one family member become more assertive, the counselor recognizes that
- A. assertiveness is a uniquely personal attribute not usually amenable to change through family counseling.
- B. making one member more assertive will result in other family members becoming more assertive.
- C. changing one family member's behavior will change the behavior of other family members.
- D. such a behavior change can be accomplished effectively only if the other family members concur that it is a desirable change.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Family counseling is grounded in systems theory, which views the family as an interconnected unit where each member's behavior affects the entire system. When a counselor helps one member become more assertive, they operate from the assumption that a change in one part of the system will influence changes in other parts of the system.
Therefore, option B is correct: changing one family member's behavior will change the behavior of other family members. It does not mean everyone will necessarily become more assertive (so A is too specific and inaccurate), nor does it assume assertiveness is purely individual and unreachable through family work (C). It also does not require that all family members agree to the change before it can occur (D).
NBCC-aligned work behaviors expect counselors to understand systemic dynamics and recognize that interventions aimed at a single family member can ripple through the entire family system.
NEW QUESTION # 72
Which of the following is consistent with a strengths-based approach that can improve the client's ability to attain goals?
- A. Recognize the effects of social structures on the client.
- B. Reward the client for challenging negative thoughts.
- C. Discover and utilize client resources and resilience.
- D. Strengthen the client's perceived self-worth.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A strengths-based approach emphasizes identifying, affirming, and using the client's existing resources, abilities, and resilience to support change. Within core counseling attributes, counselors are expected to maintain a positive, hopeful view of the client, focusing on what the client already does well and how those capacities can be applied toward goals.
* Option A directly reflects this: discover and utilize client resources and resilience is the essence of a strengths-based stance-locating inner and outer strengths and using them in planning and intervention.
* Option B (rewarding the client for challenging negative thoughts) is more characteristic of cognitive- behavioral techniques, not specifically a strengths-based orientation.
* Option C (strengthening perceived self-worth) is valuable and related to positive regard, but it does not explicitly capture the process of identifying and using strengths as the main pathway to change.
* Option D (recognizing the effects of social structures) is more aligned with social justice and multicultural counseling perspectives.
Therefore, the option most consistent with a strengths-based approach as emphasized in core counseling attributes is A.
NEW QUESTION # 73
To overcome problems involved in the interpretation of a ratio IQ, deviation IQs have been developed that:
- A. Lower the standard deviation among test takers.
- B. Reflect that all new IQ tests are being based on a common theory of intelligence.
- C. Are based on common means and standard deviations for many IQ tests.
- D. Place primary emphasis on selecting students in extreme intelligence categories.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Ratio IQs (mental age ÷ chronological age × 100) create interpretation problems, especially for adults, because mental age does not increase steadily across the lifespan. Modern intelligence testing instead uses deviation IQs, which:
* Compare an individual's performance to that of their age-based normative group.
* Use a fixed mean (typically 100) and standard deviation (often 15 or 16) to express how far above or below the average a person's score falls.
Option B best captures this idea: deviation IQs are derived from standardized norms with designated means and standard deviations, which are similar across many commonly used IQ tests, allowing for more meaningful interpretation.
The other options do not describe the purpose of deviation IQs:
* A. Lower the standard deviation among test takers - deviation IQs standardize the distribution; they don't simply "lower" the standard deviation.
* C. Place primary emphasis on selecting students in extreme intelligence categories - extremes can be identified, but that is not the primary reason deviation IQs were developed.
* D. Reflect that all new IQ tests are being based on a common theory of intelligence - tests differ in their theoretical foundations; deviation scoring is a psychometric method, not a theory of intelligence.
Within the Intake, Assessment and Diagnosis area, counselors are expected to understand basic principles of standardized testing, including the interpretation of IQ scores using norm-referenced, deviation-based metrics.
NEW QUESTION # 74
A 17-year-old client wants to become a physician. With this client, what should the counselor and client focus on in evaluating the likelihood of this goal?
- A. Socioeconomic situation
- B. Achievement test scores
- C. Previous academic record
- D. Aptitude test scores
Answer: C
Explanation:
When working with adolescents on career and educational goals, counselors are expected to examine realistic indicators of readiness and likelihood of success in a chosen field. For highly demanding professions such as medicine, the best single indicator of future academic success is the client's previous academic record, including grades, rigor of coursework, and performance in relevant subjects (especially science and math).
* Previous academic record (D) shows how the client has already handled structured academic demands over time, which closely parallels the long, intensive training path for physicians.
* Aptitude test scores (A) reflect potential, but they are more abstract and less predictive than an established history of strong academic performance when it comes to long-term professional training.
* Achievement test scores (B) focus on specific content knowledge at a given point in time, but do not give as rich a picture as an ongoing academic record.
* Socioeconomic situation (C) may influence access to opportunities and support, but ethically, counselors should not treat it as the main determinant of whether the goal is realistic; instead, it becomes part of planning supports and resources, not the primary filter for possibility.
Therefore, in evaluating the likelihood of successfully becoming a physician, the previous academic record is the most appropriate focus, making D correct.
NEW QUESTION # 75
What is the definition of transference?
- A. Transference denotes when the client develops strong emotions about the counselor.
- B. Transference denotes when the client desires a counselor with the same diagnosis they have.
- C. Transference denotes when the client looks at the counselor as a parental figure.
- D. Transference denotes when a client wants to work with a counselor who shares their culture.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Transference is a core relationship phenomenon in counseling in which a client unconsciously redirects feelings, expectations, and patterns from important early relationships (often parents or caregivers) onto the counselor. A common form of this is when the client begins to relate to the counselor as if the counselor were a parental figure-idealized, critical, abandoning, overprotective, or nurturing in ways that mirror their early experiences.
* This makes B the best answer: it captures the classic understanding of transference as the client viewing and reacting to the counselor in a parental role.
* A (wanting a counselor who shares their culture) is a preference about counselor characteristics and is more related to cultural competence and matching, not transference.
* C (developing strong emotions) is too broad; clients can have strong feelings without it being transference. Transference specifically involves repetition of earlier relational patterns.
* D (wanting a counselor with the same diagnosis) is again a preference for perceived similarity, not an unconscious displacement of past relationship dynamics.
Recognizing and working with transference appropriately is part of the counselor's core counseling attributes (self-awareness, relationship skills, and understanding of interpersonal processes) as outlined in professional counselor work behaviors.
NEW QUESTION # 76
Which of the following counseling approaches maintains that emotional and behavioral disorders are the result of clients' self-maintained illogical beliefs?
- A. Reality therapy
- B. Transactional analysis
- C. Rational-emotive behavior therapy
- D. Behavior therapy
Answer: C
Explanation:
Within Counseling and Helping Relationships, counselors must understand major counseling theories and their conceptualizations of emotional and behavioral problems.
Rational-Emotive Behavior Therapy (REBT), developed by Albert Ellis, holds that:
* People do not simply become disturbed by events themselves; rather, they become disturbed by how they interpret the events through irrational or illogical beliefs.
* These beliefs are often rigid ("musts," "shoulds," "have tos") and self-maintained by ongoing self-talk and interpretations.
* Emotional and behavioral disturbances are thus seen as the result of these self-sustained, irrational thought patterns, and counseling focuses on identifying, disputing, and replacing them with more rational beliefs.
* Reality therapy (A) emphasizes choice, responsibility, and meeting basic needs, not primarily irrational beliefs.
* Transactional analysis (C) focuses on ego states (Parent, Adult, Child) and life scripts.
* Behavior therapy (D) emphasizes learned behaviors through conditioning and reinforcement, typically without the central emphasis on irrational beliefs as the main cause.
Therefore, the approach that specifically maintains that emotional and behavioral disorders stem from clients' self-maintained illogical beliefs is Rational-Emotive Behavior Therapy (B).
NEW QUESTION # 77
A primary distinction between content and construct validity is the:
- A. Statistical analyses used on the test.
- B. Nature of the rationale underlying the test.
- C. Types of items included in the test.
- D. Nature of the judges evaluating the test.
Answer: B
Explanation:
In the assessment domain, counselors are expected to understand different forms of test validity and how they are established.
* Content validity is based on a logical, rational match between test items and a clearly defined content domain (for example, a math test sampling the full range of skills taught in a course). The rationale is:
does this set of items adequately represent the domain it claims to cover?
* Construct validity is based on a theoretical rationale: the test is intended to measure an underlying psychological construct (such as depression, anxiety, or intelligence), and multiple forms of evidence (correlations, factor analysis, group differences, etc.) are used to support that claim.
Thus, the primary distinction is the nature of the rationale underlying the test (Option B):
* Content validity relies on rational, expert judgment about content coverage.
* Construct validity relies on theory and empirical evidence regarding how the construct should behave and relate to other variables.
Why the others are incorrect:
* A. Nature of the judges: While expert judges are often involved in evaluating content validity, this is not the primary distinction; construct validity can also involve experts plus statistical evidence.
* C. Types of items: The same items could, in theory, be examined for either type of validity; items themselves do not define the distinction.
* D. Statistical analyses: Statistical evidence is especially important for construct validity, but simply saying "statistical analyses" does not capture the fundamental conceptual difference in rationale.
NBCC Counselor Work Behavior Areas expect counselors to use tests appropriately, which includes understanding these validity distinctions when selecting and interpreting assessment instruments.
NEW QUESTION # 78
Which Holland personality type should be assigned to a person who enjoys engaging in verbal persuasion to gain power and social status?
- A. Social
- B. Realistic
- C. Conventional
- D. Enterprising
Answer: D
Explanation:
Holland's theory of vocational personalities describes the Enterprising type as someone who enjoys leading, persuading, selling, influencing others, and seeking status or power. These individuals often gravitate toward roles involving management, politics, sales, or entrepreneurship.
Option A (Enterprising) matches the description of a person who enjoys verbal persuasion to gain power and social status.
* Realistic (B) types prefer hands-on, practical activities.
* Conventional (C) types prefer structured, orderly, detail-oriented tasks.
* Social (D) types enjoy helping, teaching, and supporting others more than seeking power or status.
Understanding Holland's types is part of career and vocational conceptualization, which falls under Areas of Clinical Focus in the NBCC Counselor Work Behavior Areas.
NEW QUESTION # 79
A new blended family comes to a counselor with issues with their adolescent offspring from previous marriages. The stepsiblings complain that their parents are arguing too much. Which of the following techniques would be appropriate for a first session in helping with this issue?
- A. See the family as a whole.
- B. See each parent with their stepchildren.
- C. See each child separately.
- D. See the parents together.
Answer: A
Explanation:
In the Counseling and Helping Relationships core area, systemic and family counseling approaches emphasize that:
* A family is a system, and problems (such as parental conflict and stepfamily tension) are best understood by observing the entire system interacting.
* Early sessions often focus on joining with the whole family, clarifying roles, boundaries, and interaction patterns, especially in blended families where alliances and loyalties can be complex.
Option B, seeing the family as a whole in the first session, allows the counselor to:
* Directly observe parent-child and stepparent-stepchild interactions,
* Hear each member's perspective on the arguing and its impact,
* Begin to restructure communication and set shared goals collaboratively.
The other options fragment the system:
* A (see each child separately) misses the systemic interaction at the heart of the complaint.
* C (see parents together) may be useful later but does not initially address how the conflict is affecting the children or the overall family dynamics.
* D (each parent with their stepchildren) reinforces existing divisions and alliances rather than treating the family as a single integrated system.
Therefore, B is the most appropriate first-session technique for this blended family issue.
NEW QUESTION # 80
A college counselor met with a third-year student who expressed distress after being advised to change majors from education to computer science after the student came out as transgender. What would be the most appropriate initial response?
- A. "I'll help you file a complaint against your advisor."
- B. "You need to do what is best for you regardless of what your advisor says."
- C. "What feelings came up for you when your advisor told you that?"
- D. "How do you think that being transgender would negatively impact your career choice?"
Answer: C
Explanation:
This question draws on both Social and Cultural Diversity and Counseling and Helping Relationships core areas. Counselors are expected to:
* Demonstrate cultural sensitivity and responsiveness with clients from marginalized groups, including transgender clients.
* Respond to potential bias, discrimination, or microaggressions in ways that prioritize the client's safety, dignity, and emotional experience.
* Use empathic, client-centered responses to explore feelings before problem-solving or taking action.
Option analysis:
* A. "I'll help you file a complaint..." - Advocacy and support may be appropriate later, but jumping straight to action skips the crucial step of understanding the client's internal experience.
* B. "What feelings came up for you when your advisor told you that?" - This response is client- centered and explores the student's emotional reaction to a potentially discriminatory event. It aligns with core counseling skills and multicultural competence, making it the best initial response.
* C. "How do you think that being transgender would negatively impact your career choice?" - This subtly assumes that being transgender is a negative factor and risks reinforcing stigma, which is contrary to multicultural and ethical principles.
* D. "You need to do what is best for you regardless of what your advisor says." - This is advice- giving and bypasses exploration of feelings, context, and potential systemic issues.
Because the first task in a counseling relationship-especially around identity and discrimination-is to understand and validate the client's emotional experience, Option B is the most appropriate initial response.
NEW QUESTION # 81
What is a characteristic of a group-centered leader?
- A. Being pessimistic about human nature
- B. Being focused on redirecting negative impulses
- C. Seeing people as basically positive in their intentions
- D. Seeing people as reactive to their environments
Answer: C
Explanation:
In the Group Counseling and Group Work core area, CACREP includes knowledge of group leadership styles, including approaches grounded in person-centered (client-centered / group-centered) theory.
A group-centered leader, drawing from person-centered principles, typically:
* Holds a positive view of human nature,
* Believes members have an innate tendency toward growth and self-actualization,
* Trusts that, given the right conditions (empathy, genuineness, unconditional positive regard), people will move in constructive directions.
This matches D: seeing people as basically positive in their intentions.
Why the others are not best:
* A (pessimistic about human nature): More consistent with some strictly psychoanalytic or control- oriented approaches, not group-centered leadership.
* B (seeing people as reactive to their environments): Sounds more like behavioral or social learning perspectives, not specifically group-centered.
* C (focused on redirecting negative impulses): Implies a directive, control-focused stance, rather than the non-directive, facilitative stance of a group-centered leader.
Therefore, the characteristic that best fits a group-centered leader is D. Seeing people as basically positive in their intentions.
NEW QUESTION # 82
What do results of the Substance Abuse Subtle Screening Inventory (SASSI-4) indicate?
- A. Probability of having a substance use disorder
- B. Comparison of face-valid scores and subtle attributes of substance misuse
- C. Subtle changes in substance use over time
- D. Presence of a substance use disorder
Answer: A
Explanation:
Within the Assessment and Testing core area, counselors are expected to distinguish between screening instruments and diagnostic assessments.
The SASSI-4 (Substance Abuse Subtle Screening Inventory) is a screening tool, not a diagnostic instrument. It:
* Uses both face-valid (obvious) and subtle items.
* Classifies individuals into categories indicating the likelihood (probability) of having a substance use disorder.
Ethically and professionally, screening tools such as the SASSI-4 are used to:
* Identify those with a high probability of SUD,
* Guide decisions about further assessment or referral,
* But not to independently confirm a diagnosis.
Therefore, the results indicate the probability that a person has a substance use disorder, making D correct.
NEW QUESTION # 83
Which theorist studied the development of moral values in females, allowing specialists to more thoroughly examine gender differences?
- A. Anne Roe
- B. Virginia Satir
- C. Karen Horney
- D. Carol Gilligan
Answer: D
Explanation:
Counselors must understand major theories of human development as part of their Areas of Clinical Focus.
Carol Gilligan (A) is known for her work on moral development in females, challenging Kohlberg's male- centered model. She argued that women's moral reasoning often emphasizes care, relationships, and responsibility, and that this pattern was not adequately captured in earlier theories that relied heavily on male samples.
Her research opened the door for a more nuanced understanding of gender differences in moral reasoning, which is important for counselors when conceptualizing clients' values, decision-making, and developmental tasks.
The other theorists focus on different areas:
* Virginia Satir (B) is associated with family systems and communication patterns in families.
* Anne Roe (C) is known for a theory of career development related to early child-parent relationships.
* Karen Horney (D) contributed to neo-Freudian psychoanalytic theory and explored personality and feminine psychology but did not specifically develop a major model of moral development in females.
Gilligan's work supports counselors in recognizing diverse developmental pathways and avoiding gender- biased assumptions when understanding clients' moral judgments and values.
NEW QUESTION # 84
In addition to observing a client for signs and symptoms, what other information should counselors identify when determining a diagnosis?
- A. Existence of functional disturbances
- B. Length of time in counseling
- C. Client's view of the problem
- D. Client's goals for counseling
Answer: A
Explanation:
Within the Assessment and Testing core area, CACREP notes that diagnosis is not based only on signs and symptoms, but also on the impact on functioning. In line with diagnostic standards (e.g., DSM), counselors must determine whether symptoms cause clinically significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning.
* Therefore, beyond symptom observation, counselors must assess for functional disturbances-how the client's life, work, school, or relationships are being affected.
Length of time in counseling (B), client's goals (C), and client's view of the problem (D) are clinically important, but they are not the core additional criterion for diagnosis. Diagnostic decisions hinge on both symptom patterns and functional impairment, making A the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 85
What should a counselor do, in accordance with the general characteristics of life stages, circumstances, and life perspectives, when conducting group counseling for older persons?
- A. Increase the use of purpose-specific, structured group activities.
- B. Focus on the development of new, humanistically oriented interpersonal skills.
- C. Guide discussions away from personal reminiscences by group members.
- D. Avoid the use of pre-group screening interviews to select group members.
Answer: A
Explanation:
When working with older adults in group counseling, counselors must adapt interventions and structure to the developmental stage, life circumstances, and typical perspectives of this population. Older persons often benefit from:
* Clear structure and purpose in group activities
* Concrete, goal-directed tasks
* A sense of predictability and safety in the group process
Option A, increasing the use of purpose-specific, structured group activities, aligns well with these needs and is consistent with best practices for group work with older adults.
* B is inappropriate: pre-group screening is especially important with older persons to consider cognitive, emotional, physical, and interpersonal factors and to ensure appropriate group composition.
* C overemphasizes developing new interpersonal skills; while growth is possible and important, many older adults bring extensive life experience, and group work often focuses more on support, coping with transitions, loss, health changes, and life review than on entirely new humanistic skill sets.
* D is contrary to established practice: personal reminiscence and life review are often highly therapeutic and developmentally appropriate for older adults, and should usually be supported, not avoided.
Therefore, the most appropriate action for a counselor is to increase structured, purpose-specific activities, making A the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 86
Feminist counselors suggest that:
- A. Women have socially acknowledged equality.
- B. Individual counseling can be used as a tool of social change.
- C. Women can be empowered by men.
- D. One must understand the relationship with one's mother to obtain any lasting change.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Feminist counseling emphasizes how social, political, and cultural structures contribute to client distress, especially for women and other marginalized groups. A core idea is that personal problems are often rooted in systemic oppression, and therefore counseling is not only about individual change but also about social transformation.
Option C reflects this: feminist counselors view individual counseling as a potential tool of social change by helping clients recognize oppressive systems, develop critical consciousness, and become empowered to challenge inequities in their lives and communities.
* A focuses narrowly on the mother relationship, which is more aligned with psychodynamic approaches, not feminist theory.
* B is incorrect because feminist counseling explicitly recognizes that women do not have full social equality.
* D conflicts with feminist principles, which stress self-empowerment and mutual empowerment, rather than empowerment being bestowed by a more powerful group (e.g., men).
This fits within Areas of Clinical Focus, where counselors must understand theoretical orientations that address power, oppression, gender roles, and social justice in clinical work.
NEW QUESTION # 87
Contemporary theories of occupational placement services emphasize
- A. that the singular purpose of placement centers is to find jobs for clients.
- B. reliance on computer-assisted decision-making models.
- C. that personal skills and abilities can compensate for declining trends in any occupational field.
- D. the need for clients to develop job search and networking skills.
Answer: D
Explanation:
In the Career Development core area, modern practice emphasizes career self-management, lifelong employability, and empowering clients with skills to navigate a changing labor market.
* Contemporary occupational placement and career services focus on helping clients develop practical job search skills (resume writing, interviewing, networking, use of online tools) and the ability to build and maintain professional networks. Clients are taught to actively manage their careers rather than passively wait for placements. This aligns with Option A, making it correct.
* Computer-assisted decision-making models (B) can be useful tools, but current theory does not emphasize reliance on them as the main feature; they are one resource among many.
* The idea that the singular purpose of placement centers is simply to find jobs for clients (Option C) reflects an outdated, narrow view. Contemporary practice emphasizes counseling, skill-building, and career development, not only placement.
* Option D, suggesting that personal skills can always compensate for declining trends in any occupational field, is inaccurate; labor market conditions and field-specific trends significantly affect opportunities, and counselors are trained to help clients realistically consider labor market information and occupational outlooks.
Thus, the focus on clients developing job search and networking skills (A) best represents contemporary theories of occupational placement services.
NEW QUESTION # 88
Which of the following is not equivalent to the other three in a normal distribution?
- A. Stanine of 5
- B. Percentile rank of 84
- C. T score of 60
- D. Z score of 1
Answer: A
Explanation:
In assessment and testing, counselors must understand how different standardized scoring systems relate to one another in a normal distribution so they can interpret results accurately for clients.
* A z score of 1 is one standard deviation above the mean. In a normal distribution, this corresponds to about the 84th percentile.
* A T score typically has a mean of 50 and a standard deviation of 10. One standard deviation above the mean (z = 1) equals a T score of 60.
* A percentile rank of 84 also corresponds to being about one standard deviation above the mean in a normal distribution.
So options A, B, and C all describe roughly the same relative position in the distribution: one standard deviation above the mean.
A stanine scale ranges from 1 to 9, with a mean of 5 and a standard deviation of about 2. A stanine of 5 represents the average range (around the mean), not one standard deviation above it. A score one standard deviation above the mean would fall closer to stanine 7, not 5.
Therefore, stanine of 5 (D) is not equivalent to the other three scores and is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 89
......
Best updated resource for NCE-ABE Online Practice Exam: https://www.fast2test.com/NCE-ABE-premium-file.html
Realistic Practice NCE-ABE National Counselor Examination Exam Braindumps: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1lOnGxtAjRg10QAUYEk9dPz5Ytkri625g