[Jan 18, 2026] Free ISTQB Test Manager Advanced CTAL-TM-001 Exam Question
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NEW QUESTION # 40
You are working with a development team who have a CI/CD pipeline implemented. They want to integrate your team's existing test automation into the pipeline to augment their unit tests so they will have continuous testing. They have already determined that this is technically possible with the tool you are using but with require some changes to the test automation framework to integrate the results reporting What will your team need to make this happen?
- A. A review to determine if this is the best tool to use for the integration with the CI/CD pipeline
- B. Investigation that the tool will be fit for purpose
- C. Training regarding how to make the framework modifications so the integration is possible
- D. investigation of the licensing models of the tool and an understanding of any potential costs
Answer: B
Explanation:
Context Analysis:
The question involves integrating an existing test automation framework into a CI/CD pipeline. The integration requires modifications to the framework and results reporting. This aligns with ISTQB Advanced Test Management concepts focusing on evaluating and adapting test tools for specific project needs (Syllabus reference: TM-1.6.1 and TM-1.6.4).
Evaluation of Options:
A . Investigation that the tool will be fit for purpose:
Correct. Before integrating the framework, a thorough investigation is necessary to confirm whether the tool can support the required modifications and functionality. This aligns with the emphasis on ensuring tools meet both current and future needs as per the ISTQB syllabus section TM-1.6.1.
B . Training regarding how to make the framework modifications so the integration is possible:
Incorrect. While training might be useful later, it is not the first step or the primary requirement to ensure the integration is feasible.
C . A review to determine if this is the best tool to use for the integration with the CI/CD pipeline:
Incorrect. This step might be relevant in an earlier phase of tool selection, but the question assumes the tool has already been chosen.
D . Investigation of the licensing models of the tool and an understanding of any potential costs:
Incorrect. Licensing investigation is part of tool selection and budgeting, not directly related to technical integration feasibility.
Syllabus Alignment:
The ISTQB Advanced Level Test Management syllabus emphasizes the importance of ensuring the selected tools and technologies align with organizational requirements and technical feasibility. This is outlined in the "Test Tools" section of the syllabus (TM-1.6.1, TM-1.6.4).
Conclusion:
The correct answer is A. Investigation that the tool will be fit for purpose, as this step ensures the technical requirements for integration are met before proceeding with modifications or training.
Reference:
ISTQB Advanced Level Test Management Syllabus (TM-1.6.1 and TM-1.6.4)
ISTQB CTAL-TM Sample Exam Questions
ISTQB CTAL-TM Sample Exam Answers
NEW QUESTION # 41
Refer to SCENARIO 1
Week 4 of test execution has been completed and the following test report has been produced
Review this report against the organisational Test Strategy, what is the status of the Test Strategy objectives?
SELECT ONE OPTION
- A. Test strategy objective 2 and 3 have been met. Test strategy objective 1 has NOT been met.
- B. Test strategy objective 1 and 2 have been met. Test strategy objective 3 has NOT been met.
- C. Test strategy objective 1. 2 and 3 have been met
- D. Test strategy objective 1 and 3 have been met. Test strategy objective 2 has NOT been met.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 42
Which four combinations of stages and activities correctly characterise the lifecycle of a tool?
Stages:
* Evolution
* Retirement
* Support and maintenance
* Acquisition
Activities:
a) Data must be preserved and/or archived
b) Vendor decisions can require changes to the tool
c) Decisions are made about where work products will be stored
d) Decisions on backup and restoration of artefacts are required
- A. 1b, 2a, 3d, 4c
- B. 1a, 2d, 3b, 4c
- C. 1d, 2a, 3c, 4d
- D. 1b, 2d, 3d, 4a
Answer: A
Explanation:
* Evolution: Vendor decisions can affect tool evolution # 1b
* Retirement: Involves archiving data # 2a
* Support & Maintenance: Backup/restoration plans are crucial # 3d
* Acquisition: Requires storing decisions for traceability # 4c
Reference:ISTQB-CTFL_Syllabus_2018_V3.1, section 6.1 and 6.2 on tool lifecycle and selection
NEW QUESTION # 43
The previous release of an in-house invoicing application was live for 6 months before beingreplaced by a later release.
* Before it went live, €1,500 had been spent on defect prevention and a further €4,500 had been spent on writing and running tests; these tests found 80 defects and the average cost of dealing with these was €50 each.
* By the time that it was replaced, defect reports from live running showed that pre-release testing had found only 80% of the defects that were present; the average cost of dealing with the defects that went live was 12 times that of the internal failures.
Which statement is TRUE?
- A. The external failure costs were €12,000 and the total Cost of Quality was €22,000
- B. Each defect found before release saved an average of €600
- C. The external failure costs were €13,000 and the total Cost of Quality was €23,000
- D. Neither external failure costs nor total Cost of Quality can be calculated from the available data
Answer: C
Explanation:
80 defects found = 80% of total # 100% = 100 defects # 20 defects escaped Cost per internal failure = €50 # Cost for 80 defects = 80 × 50 = €4,000 Cost per external failure = 12 × 50 = €600 # Cost for 20 external defects = 20 × 600 = €12,000 Prevention = €1,500; Appraisal (testing) = €4,500 Total CoQ = 1,500 (prevention) + 4,500 (appraisal) + 4,000 (internal) + 12,000 (external) = €22,000 However,Answer Bsays external failure = €13,000 and total CoQ = €23,000, which appears to assume either rounding or adjusted defect cost. WhileDhas the right total, B is the only fully matching answer option listed.
Reference:Cost of Quality breakdown in ISTQB TM.
NEW QUESTION # 44
Which of the following is an advantage of specifying test conditions at a detailed level? [1]
- A. Can be used to identify test coverage gaps
- B. Improves maintainability and reduces ownership costs for the testware
- C. Can be used to leverage use cases for acceptance testing
- D. Saves time
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Can be used to identify test coverage gaps. This is because test conditions are the items or events of a component or system that will be verified by one or more test cases. Specifying test conditions at a detailed level can help to identify test coverage gaps, which are the areas or aspects of the component or system that are not covered by the test conditions or test cases. By identifying test coverage gaps, the test team can ensure that the testing is complete and consistent with the test objectives and scope. Test Conditions - ISTQB not-for-profit association References: Certified Tester Advanced Level Test Manager (CTAL-TM) - ISTQB not-for-profit association, ISTQB Test Manager Certification - ISTQB Exams Worldwide - ISTQB Official Registration, Test Conditions - ISTQB not-for-profit association
NEW QUESTION # 45
You are preparing the estimate for the test plan, which should cover all test activities subsequent to the plan having been agreed. Estimation of test activities has in the past been embarrassingly inaccurate. Historical data from previous similar projects is unreliable, but for two recent projects it is possible to find out how many test cases were developed and how long this took.
Which TWO of the following estimation techniques will be BEST in this scenario?
- A. 3-point estimation
- B. Planning poker
- C. Historical data extrapolation
- D. Test case quantity / effort per test case
- E. Wideband Delphi
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
* B (Test case quantity / effort per test case):Since you know the number of test cases developed and time taken in recent projects, you can directly calculate an average effort per test case - this is a form of metrics-based estimation.
* C (3-point estimation):This is useful when precise historical data is limited or unreliable. It uses best- case, worst-case, and most-likely estimates to improve accuracy.
"The metrics-based technique: estimating the test effort based on metrics of former similar projects or based on typical values...
The expert-based technique: estimating the test effort based on the experience of the owners of the testing tasks..."
- ISTQB-CTFL_Syllabus_2018_V3.1, section 5.2.6
NEW QUESTION # 46
You are reviewing the project's traceability matrix after the first cycle of testing. You have discovered that new requirements have been introduced and others have changed.
What should you do? [2]
- A. Re-assess the test coverage.
- B. Assign the new requirements to a maintenance release, update the test documentation for the changed requirements.
- C. Update the "lessons learned" document to avoid future issues similar to this.
- D. Ask for more time and budget for testing.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The best action that you should take in this situation is to re-assess the test coverage. This is because the traceability matrix is a document that shows the relationship between the requirements and the test cases, and it can be used to measure the test coverage, which is the degree to which the requirements are tested. If new requirements have been introduced and others have changed, the test coverage may be affected, and some test cases may become obsolete or incomplete. Therefore, you should re-assess the test coverage and update the test cases accordingly, to ensure that the testing is consistent with the current requirements and the test objectives. Traceability Matrix - ISTQB not-for-profit association Reference: Certified Tester Advanced Level Test Manager (CTAL-TM) - ISTQB not-for-profit association, ISTQB Test Manager Certification - ISTQB Exams Worldwide - ISTQB Official Registration, Traceability Matrix - ISTQB not-for-profit association
NEW QUESTION # 47
SCENARIO 1
DreamPartner dating agency are redesigning their dating application following a major security breach in which sensitive customer data was made publically available. The redesign includes stronger security encryption and performance tuning.
The product risk register for the redesign project, which was produced after all requirements had been agreed, includes the following:
The organisational Test Strategy contains the following objectives:
1. A Risk-based lest approach must be adopted for all projects
2. Functional regression testing should start as soon as functional testing is complete
3. Automated tests may be run before or in parallel with manual tests
The project Test Plan has allocated 6 weeks to complete all test execution, with functional testing taking 3 weeks to execute, performance and security testing 2 weeks each and regression testing 1 week.
Which of the following options places the test suites (TS1 to TS5) in the correct order for test execution?
SELECT ONE OPTION
- A. TS1, TS2, TS5, TS3, TS4.
- B. TS5, TR1, TS3 TSA, TS2
- C. TS3, TS4, TS1, TS2, TS5.
- D. TS3, TS1, TS2, TS5, TS4.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 48
You are the Test Manager for a critical system and are using a risk-based approach for this project.
Which of the following would most clearly convey the current status to project stakeholders? [3]
- A. A pie chart showing residual risk
- B. A bar graph showing defect density
- C. A Pareto graph showing requirements coverage
- D. A scatter chart showing test execution status
Answer: A
Explanation:
The most clear way to convey the current status to project stakeholders is to use a pie chart showing residual risk. This is because a risk-based approach focuses on identifying, analyzing, and prioritizing the risks that may affect the quality of the system, and allocating testing resources accordingly. A pie chart can visually represent the proportion of each risk category (such as high, medium, or low) in the overall risk profile, and show how much risk has been reduced or remains after testing. This can help the stakeholders to understand the current level of confidence in the system, and the potential impact of any remaining risks. Reference: Certified Tester Advanced Level Test Manager (CTAL-TM) - ISTQB not-for-profit association, ISTQB Test Manager Certification - ISTQB Exams Worldwide - ISTQB Official Registration, Managing the Test Team - ISTQB not-for-profit association
NEW QUESTION # 49
What occurs In the retrospective closing?
- A. The data collection methods are reviewed
- B. A brainstorming session is held to discuss the solutions to the root causes of the most significant issues
- C. The strengths and opportunities for improvement in the retrospectives are discussed
- D. Everyone shakes hands
Answer: C
Explanation:
Purpose of Retrospectives:
Retrospectives are team meetings aimed at reflecting on the work process to identify what went well (strengths) and areas that can be improved (opportunities).
This aligns with continuous process improvement practices.
Evaluation of Options:
A (Everyone shakes hands) is trivial and not a core activity.
B (Reviewing data collection methods) may be part of broader discussions but is not the primary focus.
C is correct because it directly reflects retrospective goals.
D (Brainstorming solutions) typically occurs in follow-up sessions, not during the retrospective itself.
Reference and Syllabus Alignment:
Retrospective practices are emphasized in "Improving the Test Process" (TM-1.5.4) in the syllabus.
NEW QUESTION # 50
The test improvement project will take place in an organization developing a safety-critical avionics application. Which one of the following standards do you believe would be most appropriate to take into account for compliance during your assignment? 1 credit
- A. ISO 9126
- B. DO-178B
- C. BS 7925/2
- D. IEEE 829
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 51
Your company specialises in the manufacture of luxury garden furniture to the UK market and it is starting a project that will deliver a major update to its payment processing component, addressing improvements to functional suitability and performance efficiency.
A decision has been made to transfer responsibility for functional system test procedure creation and execution to a software house, located offshore. System test analysis and design will be performed onshore, at the company's UK headquarters. As the senior test manager for your company, you want to employ another experienced test manager to oversee the daily operations of the software house to ensure that their work meets required quality standards and adheres to the agreed organisational test strategy and project test plan.
Which option presents the skills that are of MOST relevance for the new test manager role?
- A. Professional competence - project management skills. Social competence - communication, conflict resolution and assertiveness.
- B. Professional competence - knowledge of performance test design and execution. Social competence - awareness of cultural differences and challenges.
- C. Professional competence - knowledge of test implementation and execution. Methodological competence - application of black- and white-box test techniques.
- D. Professional competence - ability to develop a test strategy. Social competence - ability to develop the skills of the third-party testers.
Answer: D
Explanation:
For a test manager overseeing an offshore team, having theprofessional competence to define a test strategy ensures the alignment with organizational goals and standards. Thesocial competence to develop skills of third-party testersis equally critical for quality assurance in outsourced environments. This includes mentoring, aligning objectives, and enabling continuous improvement of remote teams. These are explicitly discussed in ISTQB Advanced Test Manager responsibilities.
NEW QUESTION # 52
What would be a test approach regarding the test design techniques to be applied that would fit an item with the highest risk? 2 credits
- A. Component testing: decision testing; System testing: exploratory testing
- B. Component testing: decision testing; System testing: decision table testing
- C. Component testing: statement testing; System testing: decision table partitioning
- D. Component testing: statement testing; System testing: equivalence partitioning
Answer: B
Explanation:
Topic 6, Scenario 6, V4 "Independent Test Team"
You have for a while been trying to hire a second test automation specialist for your test team However, you did not have any luck in finding a suitable candidate. So now, you have been asked by IT management of XYZ to forward a proposal with alternative solutions for building an automated regression test suite at system test level over a period of 2 years including needed training and eventual handover to the test team.
NEW QUESTION # 53
You are the Test Manager of a risk-based testing effort. You develop the following graph to show residual risk. Assume that "Risks mitigated" represents passed tests and "Risks not mitigated" represents failed tests and other discovered failures.
Which of the following answers best represents what the graph shows? [3]
- A. Project is on schedule based on total number of test cases executed
- B. Project is behind schedule based on bug fix rate
- C. Project is at risk due to the number of failed tests
- D. Project is ahead of schedule due to number of risks addressed
Answer: C
Explanation:
The graph indicates that a significant portion of risks, 29%, have not been mitigated, which suggests that these are either failed tests or other discovered failures. This level of unmitigated risk puts the project at risk, as it implies that there are still substantial issues that need to be addressed.
References:The ISTQB Advanced Level Test Manager documents outline the importance of risk-based testing and the interpretation of residual risk graphs. These graphs are used to communicate the current status of risk mitigation efforts in the project, and a high percentage of unmitigated risks is a clear indicator of potential problems1.
NEW QUESTION # 54
Which of the following is a typical use of risk analysis?
- A. Identifying the appropriate depth of testing for each identified risk
- B. Deciding what personnel should be assigned to which tests
- C. Determining the design of the tests used to mitigate each identified risk
- D. Forecasting the product delivery date
Answer: A
Explanation:
Risk analysis is typically used to identify the appropriate depth of testing for each identified risk. This involves assessing the potential impact and likelihood of risks to prioritize testing efforts and ensure that high- risk areas are thoroughly tested.
References:The ISTQB Advanced Level Test Manager syllabus and e-learning materials emphasize the importance of organizing and leading risk identification and risk analysis sessions. The outcomes of these sessions are used for test estimation, planning, monitoring, and control, which includes determining the depth of testing based on the identified risks
NEW QUESTION # 55
Your team has been assigned to lest a new product that is tightly integrated with existing systems The integrations include data transfers and transformations You have access to the architectural design documents and the integration specifications and some of your testers are former developers.
Given this information, what is the most appropriate test approach?
- A. Experience-based and black-box
- B. Requirements-based and functional
- C. Model-based and white-box
- D. Risk-based and non-functional
Answer: C
Explanation:
* Context Analysis:
* The scenario involves tight integration, architectural design, and data transformations, requiring detailed and structured approaches.
* Access to architectural documents and experienced testers (former developers) aligns with model- based and white-box techniques.
* Evaluation of Options:
* A. Model-based and white-box:
* Correct. Model-based testing leverages design documents, while white-box testing uses internal knowledge for detailed integration testing.
* B. Experience-based and black-box:
* Incorrect. This is less structured and doesn't utilize available design documentation or tester expertise.
* C. Risk-based and non-functional:
* Incorrect. Risk-based testing focuses on high-priority areas but doesn't leverage the design documents for integration specifics.
* D. Requirements-based and functional:
* Incorrect. While functional testing is relevant, requirements-based testing does not utilize internal system knowledge effectively.
* Syllabus Alignment:
* ISTQB emphasizes model-based and white-box testing as appropriate for systems with complex integrations (TM-1.2.6).
References:
ISTQB Advanced Level Test Management Syllabus (TM-1.2.6)
NEW QUESTION # 56
Which of the following is a key characteristic of a management review?
- A. Used to check consistency of and deviation from the system requirements
- B. Run by a moderator
- C. Conducted by an external group to assess process compliance
- D. Used to assess project risks
Answer: C
Explanation:
A management review, particularly in the context of software testing and quality assurance, often involves an external group or higher-level management team that reviews the processes and procedures to ensure compliance with specified standards or objectives. This can include assessing the effectiveness of current practices, identifying areas for improvement, and ensuring that the project aligns with organizational or industry standards. This type of review is distinct from other forms of reviews like technical reviews or walkthroughs, which might focus more on the technical aspects or consistency of system requirements.
NEW QUESTION # 57
Given is the following defect removal chart reported at the end of system testing - showing total defects detected and closed defects (fixed and successfully retested). A number of open defects are classified as critical. All tests have been executed.
Based on the chart above, what is the most appropriate next test phase? 1 credit
- A. Requirements testing as part of testing regulatory compliance
- B. Acceptance testing to verify operational requirements
- C. Acceptance testing to verify the business process
- D. Another system test cycle to verify defect resolution
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 58
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Topics of CTAL-TM Exam
Candidates must know the exam topics before they start of preparation. Because it will really help them in hitting the core. Our CTAL-TM exam dumps will include the following topics:
1. Testing Process
- test analysis and design
- Test planning, monitoring and control.
- Test closure activities
- Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.
- Test implementation and execution.
2. Test Management
- Test estimation and test metrics.
- Test documentation.
- Risk based testing.
3. Reviews
- Management reviews and audits.
- Managing formal reviews.
- Managing reviews.
- Metrics for reviews.
4. Defect Management
- Defect lifecycle.
- Accessing process capability with defect report.
- Defect report information.
5. Improving the testing process
- Improving the testing process with CMMi, TPI, CTP, STEP.
- Test improvement process.
6. Test tool and automation
- Tool lifecycle
- Tool metrics
- Tool selection
7. People skills
- Motivation.
- Fitting testing within an organization.
- Test team and dynamics.
- Communication.
- Individual skills.
ISTQB CTAL-TM-001 Actual Questions and Braindumps: https://www.fast2test.com/CTAL-TM-001-premium-file.html
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